Practice Set – Pharmacist Exam (1-100)

  1. 1.

    Which of the following is a natural emulsifying agent obtained from vegetable sources?

  2. 2.

    BCS Class II drugs possess which of the following characteristics?

  3. 3.

    The HLB value range for oil-in-water (O/W) emulsifying agents is generally:

  4. 4.

    Which equipment works on the principle of impact and attrition?

  5. 5.

    Dextrose injection IP is sterilized by which method?

  6. 6.

    The disintegration time for hard gelatin capsules as per IP is not more than:

  7. 7.

    Which tablet excipient acts as a superdisintegrant?

  8. 8.

    The coating material widely used for enteric coating of tablets is:

  9. 9.

    The principle of freeze drying (lyophilization) is based on:

  10. 10.

    Pyrogen test in animals is performed on which animal?

  11. 11.

    Schick test is used for the diagnosis of:

  12. 12.

    Widal test is used to diagnose:

  13. 13.

    Which instrument is used to determine the surface tension of liquids?

  14. 14.

    Thixotropy is defined as:

  15. 15.

    LAL test (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) is used to detect:

  16. 16.

    Which propellant is commonly used in metered dose inhalers (MDIs)?

  17. 17.

    The bloom strength of gelatin used in capsule shell manufacturing ranges between:

  18. 18.

    Non-ideal behavior of powders like dilatancy is characterized by:

  19. 19.

    Type I glass is chemically known as:

  20. 20.

    A suppository base containing cocoa butter exhibits which property?

  21. 21.

    Which drug is considered the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?

  22. 22.

    Morphine causes analgesia primarily by acting on which opioid receptors?

  23. 23.

    Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in pregnant women due to teratogenicity?

  24. 24.

    The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is:

  25. 25.

    Mechanism of action of penicillin is inhibition of:

  26. 26.

    Which diuretic acts on the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle?

  27. 27.

    Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for toxicity caused by:

  28. 28.

    Grey baby syndrome is a well-known adverse effect of:

  29. 29.

    Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are major side effects of which class of antibiotics?

  30. 30.

    Which H2-receptor antagonist is known to inhibit hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes?

  31. 31.

    Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) act by irreversibly inhibiting:

  32. 32.

    Disulfiram is used in the treatment of:

  33. 33.

    Sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is preferred in angina because it:

  34. 34.

    Aspirin exerts its antiplatelet effect by irreversibly inhibiting:

  35. 35.

    Which antidiabetic drug belongs to the class of Biguanides?

  36. 36.

    Cinchonism is a toxic manifestation of which drug?

  37. 37.

    Atropine is chemically classified as an alkaloid of which type?

  38. 38.

    Which beta-blocker possesses selective Beta-1 cardioselectivity?

  39. 39.

    Warfarin monitoring is routinely performed using which test?

  40. 40.

    Rifampicin colors urine and body secretions in which color?

  41. 41.

    Which titration method uses potassium chromate as an indicator?

  42. 42.

    Karl Fischer reagent is primarily used for the estimation of:

  43. 43.

    The chemical structure of Penicillin consists of a fused ring system of:

  44. 44.

    Which heterocyclic ring is present in the structure of Imidazole?

  45. 45.

    Indicate the limit test principle for Iron: reaction between iron and thioglycolic acid in the presence of:

  46. 46.

    Which indicator is commonly used in complexometric titration with EDTA?

  47. 47.

    In UV-Visible spectroscopy, Beer-Lambert’s law relates absorbance directly to:

  48. 48.

    The wavelength region for UV radiation in spectrophotometry is:

  49. 49.

    Infrared (IR) spectroscopy is mainly used to identify:

  50. 50.

    Stationary phase in thin layer chromatography (TLC) is commonly:

  51. 51.

    Which of the following is a non-aqueous solvent used for weak base titrations?

  52. 52.

    Isoniazid is chemically specified as:

  53. 53.

    Omeprazole belongs to which chemical class?

  54. 54.

    The IUPAC name of Paracetamol is:

  55. 55.

    Which reagent is used in the test for primary aromatic amines (Diazotization test)?

  56. 56.

    Sulphonamides are structural analogues of which metabolite?

  57. 57.

    Kjeldahl method is used for the quantitative estimation of:

  58. 58.

    Which organic compound is used as a primary standard in alkalimetry?

  59. 59.

    Retention factor (Rf value) in chromatography is always:

  60. 60.

    NMR spectroscopy utilizes which type of radiation?

  61. 61.

    Which of the following is an indole alkaloid?

  62. 62.

    Rauwolfia serpentina belongs to which family?

  63. 63.

    The active chemical constituent of Digitalis purpurea responsible for cardiotonic activity is:

  64. 64.

    Cinchona bark contains which major antimalarial alkaloid?

  65. 65.

    Sennosides present in Senna leaves belong to which chemical group?

  66. 66.

    Which test is specific for the identification of Cardiac Glycosides?

  67. 67.

    Borntrager’s test is used to identify:

  68. 68.

    Goldbeater’s skin test is performed for the identification of:

  69. 69.

    Opium is obtained from which part of Papaver somniferum?

  70. 70.

    Clove contains oil whose chief chemical constituent is:

  71. 71.

    Which crude drug contains tropane alkaloids and turns purple in Vitali-Morin test?

  72. 72.

    Nux vomica seeds contain which toxic alkaloid?

  73. 73.

    Curcumin is the active coloring and medicinal component of:

  74. 74.

    Which carbohydrate is known as Indian Gum?

  75. 75.

    Which organelle or cellular structure is characterized by cystoliths in Pharmacognosy?

  76. 76.

    As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act, Schedule M refers to:

  77. 77.

    Schedule H of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deals with:

  78. 78.

    Which schedule specifies requirements and guidelines for clinical trials and import of new drugs?

  79. 79.

    Schedule X under Drugs and Cosmetics Rules includes:

  80. 80.

    Pharmacy Act in India was enacted in the year:

  81. 81.

    Drugs and Cosmetics Act was passed in the year:

  82. 82.

    The central pharmacy council (PCI) is reconstituted every:

  83. 83.

    Minimum educational qualification required to register as a pharmacist in India is:

  84. 84.

    Education Regulations for Pharmacy course are framed by:

  85. 85.

    Which committee submitted the report in 1931 that led to the drug legislation in India?

  86. 86.

    The Chairman of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) ex-officio is:

  87. 87.

    Central Drugs Laboratory (CDL) is located at:

  88. 88.

    Central Research Institute (CRI) for vaccine production is situated at:

  89. 89.

    An ideal inventory control method based on annual usage value of items is:

  90. 90.

    In VED analysis, ‘V’ stands for:

  91. 91.

    Which vitamin is chemically known as Cyanocobalamin?

  92. 92.

    Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

  93. 93.

    Which enzyme is inhibited by Allopurinol in the treatment of Gout?

  94. 94.

    Which anticoagulant acts in vitro as well as in vivo?

  95. 95.

    First pass metabolism primarily occurs in which organ?

  96. 96.

    Which drug is an antidote for cyanide poisoning?

  97. 97.

    A adverse reaction caused by genetic enzyme deficiency is termed as:

  98. 98.

    Barium sulfate is used in radiography as:

  99. 99.

    Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of:

  100. 100.

    Which drug causes ‘Red Man Syndrome’ as an infusion reaction?